DHS Professor Test Prep #1

DHS & DentalPost Help You Beat the Odds

DHS Professor Test Prep #1

DHS & DentalPost Help You Beat the Odds

To help continue your board preparation, below is a practice quiz to test your knowledge. Scroll down for the Answer Key when you’re ready to check your answers.
Questions 1-30 

1. Of the body’s 222 bones, only one is NOT articulated with another. This bone is the:

  • A. Vomer.
  • B. Hyoid.
  • C. Frontal.
  • D. Sphenoid.

2. If making an alginate impression on a “gagger,” one could speed up setting by:

  • A. Mixing the alginate with borax.
  • B. Mixing the alginate with cold water.
  • C. Mixing the alginate with warm water.
  • D. Mixing the alginate with potassium sulfate.

3. Antibiotic premedication for mitral valve prolapse is no longer recommended by the American Heart Association because:

  • A. It is unnecessary.
  • B. It was never proven useful.
  • C. It was mostly prescribed for hypochondriacs.
  • D. Over-prescription of common antibiotics has led to the development of “super bugs” which no longer respond to some popular medications.

4. Which disinfecting agent may leave a film or residue on clinical surfaces?

  • A. Chlorine based compounds.
  • B. Quaternary compounds.
  • C. Iodophors.
  • D. Phenols.

5. Heather, age 5, lives in an area where the concentration of fluoride in the drinking water is 6ppm. Which fluoride supplement, in milligrams/day, should be prescribed for Heather?

  • A. 0.25.
  • B. 0.50.
  • C. 1.0.
  • D. None.

6. Which is the best instrument to subgingivally scale the palatogingival groove of tooth #7?

  • A. Gracey 13/14 curet.
  • B. Columbia 4R/4L.
  • C. S204SD Scaler.
  • D. Mini-five curet.

7. Which dentifrice ingredient exhibits anti-calculus properties?

  • A. Pyrophosphate.
  • B. Calcium carbonate.
  • C. Lysozyme.
  • D. Sodium citrate.

8. Taking radiographs on a child without first obtaining the parent’s permission is an example of:

  • A. Assault.
  • B. Battery.
  • C. Negligence.
  • D. Defamation.

9. Which carbohydrates provide a storage form of energy in humans?

  • A. Glucose.
  • B. Starch.
  • C. Fibers.
  • D. Glycogen. 

10. The minimum total aluminum filtration on a dental x-ray machine capable of operating at 71 kVp and above is:

  • A. 1.50 mm. Al.
  • B. 2.50 mm. Al.
  • C. 2.75 mm. Al.
  • D. 3.0 mm. Al.

11. Schedule II medications:

  • A. Have no accepted medical use.
  • B. Are available over the counter (OTC) in many states.
  • C. Have relatively low abuse potential for patients taking the medication.
  • D. Have the highest potential for abuse for medications that can be legally prescribed by a dentist. 

12. Which periodontal ligament fiber group is most important in resisting intrusive masticatory forces?

  • A. Apical fibers.
  • B. Oblique fibers.
  • C. Horizontal fibers.
  • D. Interradicular fibers.
  • E. Alveolar crest fibers.

13. Amino acids are most important in the synthesis of:

  • A. Lipids.
  • B. Proteins.
  • C. Carbohydrates.
  • D. Nonnutritive sweeteners.

14. The film emulsion becomes hardened during which step of manual film processing?

  • A. Development.
  • B. Rinsing.
  • C. Fixing.
  • D. Drying.

15. The treatment phase of the dental hygiene process of care is equivalent to which phase of community programming?

  • A. Assessment.
  • B. Planning.
  • C. Policy development.
  • D. Implementation.

16. A light film is the result of which radiographic error?

  • A. Exposure to light.
  • B. Hot developer solution.
  • C. Not enough time in the fixer.
  • D. Depleted developer solution.

17. What is the most common salivary gland neoplasm?

  • A. Pleomorphic adenoma.
  • B. Ameloblastoma.
  • C. Cementoblastoma.
  • D. Odontoma.

18. Dyspnea is a common finding in persons with which category of need?

  • A. Respiratory.
  • B. Cardiac.
  • C. Musculoskeletal.
  • D. Drug/ alcohol abuse.

19. What is the preferred trimester to treat a pregnant woman in the dental office?

  • A. First.
  • B. Second.
  • C. Third.
  • D. Any trimester as long as the woman is healthy.

20. Which step is appropriate to increase image sharpness?

  • A. Explain to the patient to hold very still during exposure.
  • B. Increase the tooth-to-tooth receptor distance.
  • C. Align the central ray perpendicular to tooth and receptor.
  • D. Increase the focal spot size of the x-ray tube.

21. Each of the following medications increases the risk of gingival overgrowth EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

  • A. Aspirin.
  • B. Phenytoin.
  • C. Nifedipine.
  • D. Cyclosporine.

22. Morbidity is defined as:

  • A. The rate of illness in a population.
  • B. The number of deaths in a population.
  • C. The number of new cases in a population during a given period of times.
  • D. The number of live births.

23. An oral disease index should have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

  • A. Reliable.
  • B. Valid.
  • C. Qualitative.
  • D. Sensitive.
  • E. Quantifiable.

24. Lactose is composed of:

  • A. Glucose and fructose.
  • B. Glucose and galactose.
  • C. Two sucrose molecules.
  • D. Two glucose molecules. 

25. A 40-year-old man has routine dental films exposed. Upon examination of the radiographs, an oval radiolucent area is discovered above the maxillary central incisors. The teeth are vital and the roots are not resorbed; the patient probably has a (an):

  • A. Odontoma.
  • B. Ameloblatoma.
  • C. Globulomaxillary cyst.
  • D. Nasopalatine duct cyst.

26. The virus that causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is closely related to the virus that causes:

  • A. Mumps.
  • B. Measles.
  • C. Chickenpox.
  • D. Cat-scratch disease.

27. You have an asthmatic patient who uses an Advair inhaler. What should you advise the patient to do after using the inhaler?

  • A. Brush their teeth.
  • B. Rest for 5 minutes.
  • C. Rinse their mouth with water.
  • D. Not to eat or drink for 30 minutes.
Community Testlet:

In your new position as the County Oral Health Advisor, you are asked to conduct a county-wide screening project to determine the oral health status of elementary-aged children. After you collect and analyze the data from the survey, you are to determine what oral health programs you would like to plan that will address the identified needs of the children residing in the county. After the statewide dental screening project, you perform data analysis. The data shows an unusual increase in the number of caries, and the rates of gingivitis are within normal limits for children residing within the county. Based on the major themes in the data, you realize there is a shortage of dental hygienists in the rural parts of the county.

28. What core public health function was addressed through this screening project?

  • A. Assurance.
  • B. Assessment.
  • C. Policy development.
  • D. Planning.

29. The data collected shows that the caries rate for school-aged children is endemic. The data collected also shows that the gingivitis rate for school-aged children is epidemic.

  • A. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
  • B. The first statement is false. The second statement if true
  • C. Both statements are true.
  • D. Both statements are false.

30. After the statewide dental screening project and data analysis, you examine solutions to the dental problems you have documented. If the program you select to address the documented problems is to be an effective public health solution, it will have the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

  • A. It is not hazardous to life or function.
  • B. It is easily and efficiently implemented.
  • C. It is attainable to those who can afford it.
  • D. It is effective immediately upon application.
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ANSWER KEY:

1. B. All bones but the hyoid articulate with another bone.

2. C. Borax and potassium sulfate are used to either slow down or speed up the set of gypsum products, not gypsum. Adding cold water to the alginate mix slows the setting reaction.

3. D. Originally thought to be important to prevent endocarditis, clear evidence that over-prescription of common antibiotics has led to the development of bacteria now resistant to those antibiotics has caused the AHA to drop its previous recommendation for mitral valve prolapse.

4. D. Phenols may leave a film or residue on clinical surfaces. Chlorine-based compounds (A) are corrosive to metals and have a strong odor; iodophors (B) can discolor some surfaces yellow, and quaternary compounds (D) possess a lower kill spectrum. 

5. D. Fluoride supplements are recommended to children who are at high risk for caries ad drink fluoride-deficient water – less than 0.6 ppm. Therefore, Heather would NOT be prescribed a fluoride dosage (D) because the .6ppm is close to the recommended amount of fluoride (0.7 ppm). It is important to consider the additional fluoride sources received on a daily basis, such as food, drinks, and toothpaste.

6. D. The mini-five curet is the best instrument for the small palatogingival groove due to its small toe end and curved blade. The blades of the Gracey 13/14 and Columbia 4R/4L curets are too large for this area. The S240 SD is a sickle scaler and should not be used subgingivally.

7. A. Pyrophosphate, a known inhibitor of calcification, is an active ingredient in many anti- calculus dentifrices. Sodium citrate is a desensitizing agent; calcium carbonate is a polishing agent, and lysozyme acts to reduce gingivitis.

8. B. Battery is causing “bodily harm.” In dentistry, it applies to providing services that have not been approved by the patient or guardian.

9. D. The storage form of energy in humans and animals is glycogen (D). Glucose (A) is a monosaccharide and the most abundant carbohydrate found in nature. Starch (B), a polysaccharide, is the plant storage form of glucose. The main role of fiber (C), also a polysaccharide, is to promote gastrointestinal function and motility. 

10. B. Radiation Safety guidelines dictate that -ray tube heads that operate at 71 kVp have a minimum of total aluminum filtration of 2.5 mm. Al. Machines operating only up to and including 70kvp require 1.5 mm. Al.11. D.  Schedule I drugs are not able to be prescribed due to the high potential for abuse; Schedule II drugs have a high abuse potential and are highly regulated by the DEA.

12. B. Oblique fibers are arranged diagonally from the bone to the tooth surface, so they prevent the tooth from being pushed into the bottom of the alveolus during chewing.

13. B. Proteins are molecules made up of long chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.

14. C. The fixing solution hardens the film emulsion. The developer solution softens the film emulsion. The water rinse stops the development process. The drying of the film has no effect on the film emulsion. 

15. C. Implementation is the phase of community programming that is the equivalent of the treatment phase of the dental hygiene process.

16. D. A depleted developer solution will cause a lighter radiographic image. Exposure to overhead light will cause a darker radiographic image. A hotter than normal developer solution will cause a darker radiographic image. A film that is not fixed entirely will appear darker.

17. A. The pleomorphic adenoma accounts for 90% of all benign salivary gland tumors. The ameloblastoma is an odontogenic tumor that arises in the maxilla or mandible. The cementoblastoma is a lesion found fused to the root of a vital tooth. The odontoma is an odontogenic tumor composed of enamel, dentin, cementum, and pulp tissues. 

18. A. Since dyspnea refers to shortness of breath, it is most likely seen in patients with respiratory disorders. Dyspnea is not commonly seen in patients with cardiac conditions, musculoskeletal patients, or drug and alcohol abuse patients.

19. B. The second trimester is the recommended tie for the pregnant patient to visit the dentist, with an emphasis on short appointments. The first trimester is not recommended for dental visits unless it is an emergency. The third trimester is not recommended for dental visits unless it is an emergency. If a pregnant woman needs to be seen by a dental professional, the second trimester is the recommended time frame.

20. A. Instructing the patient to hold very still during exposure will increase the image sharpness. Increasing tooth-to-receptor distance will increase magnification. Aligning the central ray perpendicular to the tooth and receptor will decrease distortion. Increasing the focal spot size of the z-ray tube will decrease image sharpness.   

21. A. Phenytoin (Dilantin), Nifedipine (Procardia), and cyclosporine all may contribute to gingival enlargement in patients taking the medications.

22. A. Morbidity is the number of new cases in a population during a given period of time. Mortality is the number of deaths in a population; Incidence is the number of new cases in a population during a given period of time. Natality is the number of live births. 

23. C. An oral disease index should have the following characteristics:  Reliable, Valid, Sensitive, and Quantifiable. 

24. B. Lactose is a disaccharide composed of one molecule of glucose and one molecule of galactose. 

25. D. The nasopalatine duct cyst (also known as the incisive canal cyst) occurs between the maxillary central incisors. On a periapical radiograph, the nasopalatine duct cyst often appears heart-shaped due to superimposition of the anterior nasal spine.

26. C. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). Varicella-zoster virus (also known as herpes zoster) causes chickenpox and can be reactivated as shingles. Three are eight members of the herpes virus family, including HSV and herpes zoster, along with Epstein-Barr virus and Kaposi-sarcoma-associated herpes virus.

27. C. Advair is a combination inhaler composed of a long-acting bronchodilator and a steroid. Topical steroids increase the risk of Candida infection, and rinsing after use decreases the risk of fungal infection. 

28. B. Assessment is the public health function described.

29. C. Both statements are true. 

30. C. It is easily attainable by those who can afford it. An effective public health solution will contain the following characteristics: not hazardous; easily and efficiently implemented; effective immediately upon application.